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Thursday, December 31, 2015

NIIT Question Papers Free Download

As you need the National Institute of Information Technology placement question paper, here I am uploading a document file having the same. There is objective type of the questions available. Following is the content of attachment:

1. Find the value of E.

a. 5

b. 7

c. 4

d. Cannot be determined

2. What is the sum of C, E and G?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 11

d. Cannot be determined

3. How many different sum’s of A, D, F and I are possible?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. Cannot be determined

In the M. sc. Nuclear Physics class of Presidency Collage there are 151 students. They must choose either two or three out of 4 optional subjects, Nuclear Thermo Dynamics, Nuclear Field Theory, Nuclear Radiation, Nuclear Reaction in their combination.

Given below are some clues about breakup of 2004-05 classes

Number of students taking 2 subject combination = 132 students.

Students taking only Nuclear Thermo Dynamics & Nuclear Field Theory = 12

Students taking only Nuclear Field Theory & Nuclear Reaction = 33

Students taking only Nuclear Theory Dynamics & Nuclear Radiation = 31

Students taking only Nuclear Radiation & Nuclear Reaction = 46

4. What is the number of students who took nuclear Thermo Dynamics in their combination?

a. less than 75

b. 75

c. more than 75

d. can’t be determined

e) 23

5. What is the number of students who took Nuclear Radiation in their combination?

a. less than 95

b. 95

c. more than 95

d. 54

e. can’t be determined

6. Which subject was taken up by maximum number of students?

a. Nuclear Thermo Dynamics

b. Nuclear Field Theory

c. Nuclear Reaction

d. Nuclear Radiation

e. None of these

Long ago, King Ashoka, organized a horse riding competition. The entry fee for participation was one gild coin and the total number of coins collected would be distributed among the first four winners. All the four winners were awarded with a different number of coins; however the winner in the first position got the maximum coins and so on, so that the winner in the fourth position got the least number of coins.

A, B, C, D were the first four winners in the competition so that;

I. A did not come first, B did not come second, C did not come third and D did not come fourth.

II. B won more coins than C.

III. D won more coins than B.



7. C, one of the four winners ended the competition in position number.

a. 4

b. 2

c. 1

d. Cannot be determined

8. If 12 participants took part in the competition, then how many coins did B win?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. Cannot be determined



9. If 13 participants took part in the competition and A won 4 coins, how many coins did d win?

a. 7

b. 5

c. 6

d. Cannot be determined

10. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 16 years. The ratio of their ages in 7 : 1 respectively. What is the woman’s age?

a. 4 years

b. 28 years

c. 32 years

d. 6 years

e. None of these

11. Deven Invests Rs. 2,34,558 which is 25% of his annual income, in National Saving schemes. Whar is his monthly income?

a. Rs. 9,38,232

b. Rs. 78,186

c. Rs. 4,69,116

d. Rs. 2,34,558

e. None of these

12. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 km upstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hours and 30 minutes. The speed of the stream is

a. 10 km/h

b. 5 km/h

c. 4 km/h

d. 6 km/h

e. None of these



13. Tow-third of one-seventh of a number is 87.5% of 240. Whar is the number?

a. 2670

b. 2450

c. 2205

d. 1470

e. None of these

14. A cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cm contains water. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm is lowered into the water until it is completely immeresed. The water level in the vessel will rise by

a. 9/2 cm

b. 9/4 cm

c. 4/9 cm

d. 2/9 cm

e. None of these

15. At what rate perscent per annum of simple interest, will a sum of money double itself in 12 years?

a. 7 1/2%

b. 8%

c. 9%

d. 8 1/3%

e. None of these

16. If (20)² is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 4321. What is the number?

a. 110

b. 111

c. 112

d. 113

e. None of these

Description: Quantitative Questions For CAT P, Q and R run on the tracks made in the shape of a star, pentagon and circle, respectively. The radius of the circle is ‘r’ and side of the pentagon = 2a and OX = 2OL = 2b. O is the centre of the figure



17. Find distance traveled by ‘P’.

a. 5(r² + 3a²)½

b. 10(r² + 3a²/2)½

c. 10(r² + 2a²)½

d. 10(r² + 3a²/4)2

18. If a + b = r 10 km and P travels at a speed of 10 km/hr. Find time taken by P to complete one round.

a. 6.52 hours.

b. 8.5 hours

c. 8 hours

d. 7.21 hours

19. What is the ratio of the time taken by R to complete one round to the time taken by Q to complete one round around their respectively tracks if the speed of Q is two thirde that of R? (Use data from the previous questions)

a. 0.698

b. 0.85

c. 0.5

d. 1.43

There are 3 bottles and a jug. The bottles each have a capacity of 5 liters but are partially filled with water. The jug also has some water in it. The sum of the water in the jug and water in the first bottle is half of the total jug capacity. When the first bottle and third bottle are emptied into the jug, it contains 6 liters of water. When the second and the third bottle are emptied into the jug, it contains 7 liters of water. When all the bottles are poured into the jug, it’s filled to it’s capacity. The first and second bottles contain a total of 7 liters.

20. what percentage of total capacity of the bottles is filled with water?

a) 20% – 40%

b) 40% – 60%

c) 60% – 80%

d)30% – 50%

e) Can’t be determined.

21. What is the capacity of the jug? (In liters)

a) 7

b) 8

c) 9

d) 10

e) 11

22. How much water does the jug already contain (in liters)?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 1

d) 2

e) 5

23.A thief escaped from police custody. Since he was a sprinter, he could run at a speed of 40 km/hr. The police realized it after 3 hr and started chasing him in the same direction at 50km/hr. The police had a dog, which could run at 60 km/hr. The dog would run to the thief and then return back to the police and then would turn back towards the thief. It kept on doing so till the police caught the thief. Find the total distance traveled by the dog in the direction of the thief?

Here are the options -

a) 720 km

b) 600 km

c) 660 km

d) 360 km

e) 230 km



A cricket tournament was to be organized in Mumbai in which six teams were to participate. The six teams are A, B, C, D, E and F. Each team had to play each of the other teams once. The tournament is scheduled to be held between 25th to August to 4th September 1998. Following information are given:



(i) There has to be a gap of at least 1 day between the matches played by a particular team.

(ii) There cannot be more than two matches on any given day.

(iii) Team C has to play the 1st match of the tournament on 25th August and the last match is to be held on 4th September.

(iv) A plays C on 3rd September and D on 31st August.

(v) D plays C on 25th August, F on 27th August, E on 29th August and play their last match on 4th September.

(vi) No matches are to be held on 26th August and 2nd September. Only 1 match is to be held on 4th September.

24. Which of the following matches cannot be held on 25th August?

a. C vs B

b. B vs A

c. B vs F

d. None of these

25. E vs F match cannot be scheduled on

a. 30th August

b. 31st August

c. 1st September

d. 3rd September



26. The last Match for A is scheduled on

a. 1st September

b. 2nd September

c. 3rd Septermber

d. 4th September



Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Description: reasoning ability questions



\27. How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?

a.0

b.1

c.2

d. More than 2

e. none

28. Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?

a.Rahu1

b.Saurav

c.Virender

d. Yuvraj

e. Cannot be determined.

29. For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?

a.0

b.1

c. 2

d. More than 2

e. Cannot be determined

30. Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?

a. Only Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj

b. Only Kaif or Rahul

c. Only Kaif or Yuvraj

d. Only Kaif

e. Only Yuvraj



In a cricket game, 3 batsman A , B and C performed well . The runs are scored in 6’s , 4’s and 1’s only. The number of B’s sixes are greater by 50% than that of C and less by 25% than that of A. The number of B’s fours are greater by 50% than that of A and less by 25% than that of C. Maximum numbers of one’s is scored by C which is 50% greater than that of A, and B’s is 25% greater than that of A . The number of balls and number of runs scored are same. Also 276 runs are scored in the game. Runs scored from 6’s are 75% of the runs scored from 4’s . A score 40 ones.



31. Who scores maximum runs ?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) A & B

e ) B & C



32. How many balls were dot balls?

a) 126

b) 150

c) 76

d) 99

e) 121



A, B, C and D are four football teams taking in the ULFA Cup. Each team is required to play against all the other teams once. The matches will be played on grounds P, Q, R and S. You as the coordinator of the ULFA Cup are required to allot matches to the four grounds. To allot the matches, you must meet the following conditions:

I. Grounds P and Q can host matches only on Sundays and grounds R and S can host matches only on Saturday.

II. Team A can play its matches either on ground P or R and on no other grounds.

III. Team B can play its matches either on ground P or Q and on no other grounds.

IV. Team C can play its matches on all grounds except P.

V. All grounds must host at least one match.



33. On which one of the following grounds will the match between b and C be played?

a. P

b. Q

c. R

d. S



34. Which one of the following set of teams must play the match on a Saturday?

a. C and D

b. A and B

c. A and D

d. A and C



35. Which one of the following set of teams will not play the match on a Saturday?

a. C and D

b. A and B

c. A and D

d. A and C



36. What will be the total number of matches played in the tournament?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6



37. Which one of the following set of teams can play the match on ground P and Q?

a. B and C

b. B and D

c. A and B

d. A and C



Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are playing a game. The game involves many rounds initially all of them stand forming a circle according to the alphabetical order of their names in clockwise arrangement.



In each round exactly three players exchange their position and in a round one player can exchange his position only once. Nobody can exchange position with his adjacent players and so player can exchange position in two consecutive rounds.



38. Which players can possibly play the first round?

a. A, D, E

b. B, C, F

c. F, G, H

d. A, F, L



39. If the first round is played by B, G and E then which player cannot play in the third round?

a. F

b. B

c. C

d. A



40. If C, E and G played the first round then which of the following statements must be true?

I. Both F and D will play the second round.

II. Both F and D cannot play the third round.

III. Atleast one out of F and D cannot play the third round.

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II only



41. If H, B and E played the first round then anyone out of the following can play in the their round except:

a. G

b. A

c. C

d. F



Harish and Sachin are playing a game of matchsticks. There are N matchsticks on the table to start with. Each player, in his turn, picks up at least one matchstick and at most eight matchsticks. The two players take turn alternately. The player who clears the table loses. Assume that each player plays intelligently with an objective of winning. The first move is Haris’s. No player is allowed to pass his turn without picking up any matchsticks.



42. If, for some N, it is known that the number of matchsticks up by Harish in his first four moves were 6, 4, 3 and 6 respectively, then how many matchsticks would Sachin have picked up in his third move? Assume that Harish wins the game?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 6

d. insufficient data.



43. If it is known that the game was completed in 8 moves (by each of the two players), what is the maximum possible value for N?

a. 63

b. 71

c. 72

d. 81

Four boys and four girls sit around a round to discuss strategies to improve their performance in CAT. Each one of them likes two of the three sections English, Maths and DI and is weak in the third section which they dislike. Also,



1. Namrata is equidistant from Manju and Ritu and likes Maths and DI.

2. Sachin is equidistant from Abhay and Swati but not adjacent and does not like English.

3. Person sitting two places to the right of Amar does not like English.

4. Swapnil likes Maths and sits to the immediate left of Namrata and to the immediate tight of Manju.

5. Person opposite Ritu likes only one of the sections that Ritu likes.

6. Abhay and the person sitting opposite him don’t like Maths.

7. Person to the immediate left of Swati likes DI and English.



44. Which are the two sections that Manju likes?

a. English and Maths

b. English and DI

c. [a] and [c]

d. [b] and [c]



45. Who sits opposites Namrata?

a. Sachin

b. Amar

c. Swati

d. Manju



46. Which is the section that Ritu does not like?

a. Maths

b. Di

c. English

d. DI or Maths



47. Which is the common section in which Ritu and Swapnil are weak?

a. Maths

b. English or maths

c. Maths or DI

d. DI



There are 3 bottles and a jug. The bottles each have a capacity of 5 liters but are partially filled with water. The jug also has some water in it. The sum of the water in the jug and water in the first bottle is half of the total jug capacity. When the first bottle and third bottle are emptied into the jug, it contains 6 liters of water. When the second and the third bottle are emptied into the jug, it contains 7 liters of water. When all the bottles are poured into the jug, it’s filled to its capacity. The first and second bottles contain a total of 7 liters.



48. What percentage of total capacity of the bottles is filled with water?

a) 20% – 40%

b) 40% – 60%

c) 60% – 80%

d) 30% – 50%



49. What is the capacity of the jug? (In liters)

a) 7

b) 8

c) 9

d) 10



50. How much water does the jug already contain (in liters)?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 1

d) 2



51. Four cups of milk are to be poured into a 2-cup bottle and a 4-cup bottle. If each bottle is to be filled to the same fraction of its capacity, how many cups of milk should be poured into the 4-cup bottle?

a) 2/3



b)7/3



c) 5/2



d) 8/3



e) 3



52. Distance between A and B is 72 km. Two men started walking from A and B at the same time towards each other. The person who started from A travelled uniformly with average speed 4 kmph. While the other man travelled with varying speeds as follows: In first hour his speed was 2 kmph, in the second hour it was 2.5 kmph, in the third hour it was 3 kmph, and so on. When will they meet each other?



a) 7 hours



b) 10 hours



c) 35 km from A



d) Midway between A & B



e) 6 hours



S = {a, b, c, d, e}. A binary operation * is defined by the following table, which had been partially filled up.
Description: Quantitative Questions
For all x, y belonging to S, x * y = y * x. The operation * is so defined that every x belonging to S occurs exactly once in each row and each column of the table.

53. If a * b = e and a * a = d, what is the value of c * d?

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. e

54. If a * a = b and b * b = c, what is the value of c * d?

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. e

55. If a * b = d and c * d = b, then d * d =

a. c

b. a

c. d

d. b



56.What would be the remainder when (1!)3 + (2!)3 + (3!)3 + (4!)3 + (5!)3 +…+ (n!)3 is divided by 5. Where n is the largest 3 digit number .



A. 0

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

E. 4



57.Find the greatest number consisting of 6 digits , which on being divided by 6,7,8,9,10 leaves 4,5,6,7,8 as remainders respectively.



A. 997922

B. 997920

C. 997918

D. 997928

E. 997912





58.A watermelon weighs 5000 gm. 99% of its weight is water. It is kept in a drying room and after some time it turns out that only 98% of its weight is water. What is the weight now?



A. 2450

B. 4851

C. 4500

D. 2500

E. None of these .





59.A cask of wine when fully filled holds 10 liters. 2 liters of wine is removed and filled with water. Then 4 liters in the solution is replaced with water. Then 6 and 8 liters respectively. At the end of the 4th operation , the ratio of wine to water is.





A. 4! / (5) 4

B. 4! / (5 4 - 4! )

C. 8! / 10 4

D. 8! / (10 4 – 8! )

E. None of these



60.A hare pursued by a hound who is 50 of her own leaps before him. When the hare takes 4 leaps, the hound takes 3. in one leap , the hare goes 1¾ meters and the hound 2¾ meters. In how many leaps will the hound overtake the hare?



A. 70 leaps

B. 36 leaps

C. 210 leaps

D. 328 leaps

E. 140 leaps.





Direction for next 2 questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the text given below

If A and B are running in a circular track in a direction opposite to that in which C is running. C is running at twice and thrice the speed of A and B respectively and on the same track. They start running from the same point and A’s average speed is 3m/s and the track is 120 m.



61.When, after the start, will B find himself equidistant and between A and C for the first time?



A. 120/9 see

B. 17 1/7

C. 15 sec

D. 25 2/3 sec

E. None of these



62.When all three meet for the first time , how many complete rounds have been made by C ?





A. 4

B. 9/2

C. 5

D. 6

E. 3



63.A monkey climbing up a greased pole ascends 10 meters and slips down 2 meters in alternate minutes. If the pole is 64 meters high how long will it take him to reach the top?



A. 16 min

B. 12 min

C. 14 min

D. 18 min

E. None of these

64.The average of (54,820)*2 and (54,822)2 is.



A. (54,821)2

B. (54,821.5)2

C. (54,820.5)2

D. (54,821)2 + 1

E. (54,821)2 – 1


65.a, b, and c are positive integers. If a, b, and c are assembled into the six-digit number abcabc, which one of the following must be a factor of abcabc?



A. 16

B. 13

C. 5

D. 3

E. none of the above

66.11+22+33+...+1010 is divided by 5. What is the remainder?



A. 0



B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

67.If n is an integer greater than 0, what is the remainder when 912n+3 is divided by 10?


A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 7

E. 9

68.Each of 435 bags contains at least one of the following three items: raisins, almonds, and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only raisins is 10 times the number of bags that contain only peanuts. The number of bags that contain only almonds is 20 times the number of bags that contain only raisins and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only peanuts is one-fifth the numbers of bags that contain only almonds. 210 bags contain almonds. How many bags contain only one kind of item?

A. 256

B. 260

C. 316

D. 320
E. can’t be determined

69.If a = 2x 3y and b = 2l 3m and all of x, y, l, m are positive integers. What is the probability that a/b is an integer?

A. 1/2

B. 1/6

C. 1/4

D. 3/4

E. 2/3

70
A rectangle plank √2 m wide is placed symmetrically on the diagonal of a square of side 8m as shown in the figure.

The area of the plank is?

A. (16√2-3)m2

B. 7√2m2

C. 98m2

D. 14m2

E. 13√3m2

71.The largest integer that always divides n5 – 5n3 + 4n for all natural n is

A. 40

B. 60

C. 24

D. 120

E. 30

72.Two printers are installed to print some pages. First printer’s work is directly proportional and the other’s is inversely proportional to the temperature. If the total work done at 15o C is 20 pages and at 20o C is 25 pages, what is the work done at 35o C?

A. 41.2 pages

B. 43.2 pages

C. 40 pages

D. 39.7 pages.

E. 40.7 pages.

73.

In the given figure, OX and OY are tangents and A and C are the centers of the circles. Find (∠ p - ∠q).

A. 6°

B. 7°

C. 8°

D. 9°

E. 5°

74.The value of y = (x2)/(x4 + 1) lies in which of the following inequality?

A. 0
B. 0
C. 0<=y<=α

D. -1/2<=y<=1/2

E. -α
75.If a, b, c are in G.P (a, b, c >0) and log(5c/a), log(3b/5c) and log(a/3b) are in A.P then a, b, c are sides of

A. an acute angled triangle

B. an equilateral triangle

C. a right angled triangle

D. Isosceles triangle

E. None of these.
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NIIT Online test

NIIT is conducting its 7th National I.T.
Aptitude Test held on Feb 2012 at various places.

Eligibility 
Graduates (Any discipline)
Polytechnic student
10+2 pass students
NITAT consists of following sections:

Verbal Ability & Communication Skills – ratio of 30
Logical Reasoning & Creative Problem Solving –ratio of 20.
Numerical Ability – ratio of 35
Supporting Personality Traits – ratio of 15
Courses offered by NIIT are
GNIIT 3year program for knowledge in :Information System Management&Software Engineering
B.Sc (IT)& M.Sc (IT)
SWIFT – This program is about Basics of IT technology
CATS - whats latest in IT field development

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NIIT sample paper of Oracle with answer



I am sharing the NIIT sample paper of Oracle with answer for your reference. You can go through it for your purpose. I am giving he question paper from the official website for your reference.

You can well prepare for your examinations with the question paper.




QUESTION 1:

Which six files are maintained in the Flash Recovery Area? (Select SIX)



A. control file

B. RMAN files

C. password file

D. parameter file

E. flashback logs

F. data file copies

G. core dump files

H. archived log files

I. RMAN recovery scripts

J. control file autobackpus


Answer: A, B, E, F, H, J



Explanation:

The Flash Recovery Area is a unified storage location for all recovery-related files and activities in an Oracle

Database. It includes Control File, Archived Log Files, Flashback Logs, Control File Autobackups, Data

Files, and RMAN files.


QUESTION 2:

The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis runs every 60 minutes on your database.

Your database if facing a series of interrelated problems over a period of two hours. You need to ensure that

the ADDM analysis is run over a time span of two hours in future.



What would you do?


A. Create two custom ADDM tasks.

B. Modify the AWR snapshot time interval to two hours.

C. Create a new scheduler window for a time period of two hours.

D. Modify the time interval by using the DBMS_JOB.INTERVAL procedure.

E. Modify the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot retention period to two hours.


Answer: B


Explanation:

The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) provides a holistic tuning solution. ADDM analysis

can be performed over any time period defined by a pair of AWR snapshots taken on a particular instance.

Analysis is performed top down, first identifying symptoms and then refining them to reach the root causes of

performance problems. The goal of the analysis is to reduce a single throughput metric called DB time. DB

time is the cumulative time spent by the database server in processing user requests. It includes wait time and

CPU time of all non-idle user sessions. DB time is displayed in the V$SESS_TIME_MODEL and

V$SYS_TIME_MODEL views.


QUESTION 3:

Which four statements regarding the Clone Database tool are correct? (Select FOUR)



A. It clones Oracle databases from release 8.1.7 or later.



B. It clones a source database while the database is in NOMOUNT state.



C. It clones a source database while the database is in MOUNT state.



D. It clones an Oracle database by using Recovery Manager (RMAN).



E. It clones a source database at the specified Oracle home and starts the new database instance in the open

mode.


F. It clones a source database and makes the new database instance consistent with the source database up to

the backup time of archived log.


Answer: A, C, D, F


Note: The question is wrong. There isn't a "CLONE DATABASE tool". There are only DBCA and RMAN

tools to clone a database.



Explanation:

Observation: If we want to clone a database using the DBCA, first we create a database template; after that

doesn’t matter if the database source is in NOMOUNT or MOUNT state.



Cloning Databases Using DBCA

The "Template Management" section of the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) can be used to clone

databases. The following method creates a clone of and existing database including both the structure and the

data:



1. Start the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).



2. On the "Welcome" screen click the "Next" button.



3. On the "Operations" screen select the "Manage Templates" option and click the "Next" button.



4. On the "Template Management" screen select the "Create a database template" option and select the "From

and existing database (structure as well as data)" sub-option then click the "Next" button.



5. On the "Source database" screen select the relevant database instance and click the "Next" button.



6. On the "Template properties" screen enter a suitable name and description for the template, confirm the

location for the template files and click the "Next" button.



7. On the "Location of database related files" screen choose either to maintain the file locations or to convert

to OFA structure (recommended) and click the "Finish" button.



8. On the "Confirmation" screen click the "OK" button.



9. Wait while the Database Configuration Assistant progress screen gathers information about the source

database, backs up the database and creates the template. By default the template files are located in the

"$ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates" directory.





QUESTION 4:

The ______ identifies and helps to resolve performance problems relating to the execution of SQL statements

by recommending which indexes, materialized views, or materialized view logs to create, drop, or retain.



A. Undo Advisor

B. MTTR Advisor

C. Memory Advisor

D. Segment Advisor

E. SQL Tuning Advisor

F. SQL Access Advisor



Answer: F



Explanation: The SQL Access Advisor helps you achieve your performance goals by recommending the

proper set of materialized views, naterialized view logs, and indexes for a given workload. The SQL Access

Advisor recommends bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes. A bitmap index offers a reduced response

time for many types of ad hoc queries and reduced storage requirements compared to other indexing

techniques. B-tree indexes are most commonly used in a data warehouse to index unique or near-unique keys.

Another component of the SQL Access Advisor also recommends how to optimize materialized views so that

they can be fast refreshable and take advantage of general query rewrite.


QUESTION 5:

In the server parameter file (SPFILE), the UNDO_TABLESPACE initialization parameter is set to

UNDOTBS. You executed the following SQL statement to rename the UNDOTBS undo tablespace: ALTER

TABLEPACE undobts RENAME TO undobts_old;



Which statement is correct in this scenario?



A. The tablespace will be renamed but the data file headers will not be updated.



B. The above SQL statement will fail because you cannot rename an undo tablespace.



C. The tablespace will be renamed and all the changes will be logged in the alert log file.



D. The tablespace will be renamed but a message will be added to the alert log file indicating that you should

change the corresponding initialization parameter files.



E. To be able to rename the UNDOTBS undo tablespace, you would need to set the UNDO_TABLESPACE

initialization parameter to some other tablespace name and then execute the above SQL command.



Answer: C

Explanation:

Using the RENAME TO clause of the ALTER TABLESPACE, you can rename a permanent or temporary

tablespace. The COMPATIBLE parameter must be set to 10.0 or higher. If the tablespace is an undo

tablespace and if the following conditions are met, then the tablespace name is changed to the new tablespace

name in the server parameter file (SPFILE).



- The server parameter file was used to start up the database.

- The tablespace name is specified as the UNDO_TABLESPACE for any instance.



If a traditional initialization parameter file (PFILE) is being used then a message is written to the alert log

stating that the initialization parameter file must be manually changed.



Reference:

Oracle(r) 10g Administrator Guide , 8-19


QUESTION 6:

Identify four uses of the Oracle Scheduler. (Select FOUR)



A. Enables you to set idle time limits for a resource plan.



B. Enables you to schedule job execution based on time.



C. Enables you to execute jobs in a clustered environment.



D. Enables you to assign priorities to the consumer groups.



E. Enables you to map a consumer group to an Oracle user.



F. Enables you to create a job that makes use of saved programs and schedules.



G. Enables you to periodically execute operating system script files located on the same server as the

database.


Answer: B, C, G, F



Explanation:

A - FALSE. Isn't an Oracle scheduler capability.



B - TRUE. Schedule job execution based on time or events. The most basic capability of a job scheduler is the

ability to schedule a job to run at a particular date and time or when a particular event occurs.



C - TRUE. Execute and manage jobs in a clustered environment. A cluster is a set of database instances that

cooperates to perform the same task. Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) provides scalability and

reliability without any change to your applications. The Scheduler fully supports execution of jobs in such a

clustered environment. To balance the load on your system and for better performance, you can also specify

the database service where you want a job to run.



D - FALSE. The Scheduler activity is logged and information such as the status of the job and the last run

time of the job can be easily tracked, this way the DBA would track witch particular JOB time and statistics,

not consumer groups.


F - TRUE. For example, consider the situation where a patch needs to be applied to a database that is in

production. To minimize disruptions, this task will need to be performed during non-peak hours. This can be

easily accomplished using the Scheduler. Instead of having IT personnel manually carry out this task during

non-peak hours, you can instead create a job and schedule it to run at a specified time using the Scheduler.



G - TRUE. Application developers can create programs and program libraries that end users can use to create

or monitor their own jobs. In addition to typical database jobs, you can schedule and monitor jobs that run as

part of an application suite.


QUESTION 7:

You are using SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune SQL workload in your database.


Which four types of recommendations do you get from Automatic Tuning Optimizer (ATO) via the STA?

(Select FOUR)



A. recommendation to create indexes

B. recommendation to use stored outlines

C. recommendation to create a SQL profile

D. recommendation to gather relevant statistics

E. recommendation to denormalize the schema

F. recommendation to restructure SQL statements



Answer: A, C, D, F


Explanation:

For the A answer see the point n°3.


For the C answer see the point n°2.

Oracle 10g allows the optimizer to run in tuning mode where it can gather additional information and make

recommendations about how specific statements can be tuned further. This process may take several minutes

for a single
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After completing JAVA course from NIIT, there are lots of options available for you. JAVA is the most commonly used programming language. After completing this course you can get following types of the jobs

After completing JAVA course from NIIT, there are lots of options available for you. JAVA is the most commonly used programming language. After completing this course you can get following types of the jobs:

Java Video Game Programmer
Java Web Developer
Java Webmaster
Java Developer
Web Software Engineer

This is the list of recruiting companies of NIIT:
IBM India 
Wipro 
Tech Mahindra 
HCL Technologies 
TCS 
Infosys 
Mphasis 
Cognizant Tech 
HP India 
Patni Computers
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Take admission in NIIT for JAVA Programming


As you want to take admission in NIIT for JAVA Programming, so here I am providing the list of JAVA Programs offers at NIIT:

JAVA Programs 
Certificate in Java Programming Language (CRJv3)
Certificate Program in Advanced Java Programming for Web Development (J2Ev3)
Certificate in Web Component Development using Java Technologies (CJEv3)
Developing Mobile Applications using J2ME (MAJV2)
Architecting J2EE Solutions (ARJ)

Eligibility Criteria

Certificate in Java Programming Language
Duration – 72 hours
Eligibility – 1) Knowledge of Databases and SQL commands
2) Knowledge of any programming language

Certificate Program in Advanced Java Programming for Web Development
Duration – 90 hours
Eligibility – 1) Knowledge of Java Programming Language
2) Knowledge of working with Databases and SQL commands
3) Knowledge of HTML

Certificate in Web Component Development using Java Technologies
Duration – 150 hours
Eligibility – 1) Knowledge of Databases and SQL command
2) Knowledge of any programming language

Developing Mobile Applications using J2ME
Duration – 36 hours
Eligibility – 1) Basic knowledge of distributed or enterprise applications
2) Familiarity with client/server architecture
3) Knowledge of core Java concepts, such as classes, packages, interfaces, threads, and sockets
4) Knowledge of JDBC technology
5) Knowledge of J2EE Web components, such as servlets and JSP
6) Knowledge of Enterprise JavaBeans components

Architecting J2EE Solutions
Duration – 24 hours
Eligibility – 1) Basic knowledge of distributed or enterprise applications
2) Familiarity with client/server architecture
3) Knowledge of core Java concepts, such as classes, packages, interfaces, threads, and sockets
4) Knowledge of JDBC technology
5) Knowledge of J2EE Web components, such as servlets and JSP
6) Knowledge of Enterprise JavaBeans components
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Java Objective Questions and Answer


Java Objective Questions and Answer

QUESTION NO: 1
Given:
1. public class Test {
2. public static void main(String args[]) {
3. class Foo {
4. public int i = 3;
5. }
6. Object o = (Object)new Foo();
7. Foo foo = (Foo)o;
8. System.out.println(“i = “ + foo.i);
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. i = 3
B. Compilation fails.
C. A ClassCastException is thrown at line 6.
D. A ClassCastException is thrown at line 7.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which two cause a compiler error? (Choose two)
A. float[] = new float(3);
B. float f2[] = new float[];
C. float[] f1 = new float[3];
D. float f3[] = new float[3];
E. float f5[] = { 1.0f, 2.0f, 2.0f };
F. float f4[] = new float[] { 1.0f. 2.0f. 3.0f};
Answer: A, B
The F. statement is incorrect. The float numbers should be separated with commas and not
dots.
QUESTION NO: 3 Given:
11. int i =1,j =10;
12. do {
13. if(i++> --j) {
14. continue;
15. }
16. } while (i <5);
17. System.out.println(“i = “ +i+ “and j = “+j);
What is the result?
A. i = 6 and j = 5
B. i = 5 and j = 5
C. i = 6 and j = 5
D. i = 5 and j = 6
E. i = 6 and j = 6
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 4
Given:
1. class Test {
2. private Demo d;
3. void start() {
4. d = new Demo();
5. this.takeDemo(d);
6. }
7.
8. void takeDemo(Demo demo) {
9. demo = null;
10. demo = new Demo();
11. }
12. }
When is the Demo object, created on line 3, eligible for garbage collection?
A. After line 5.
B. After line 9.
C. After the start() method completes.
D. When the takeDemo() method completes.
E. When the instance running this code is made eligible for garbage collection.
Answer: E
.Sun JAVA2 Certification Program Volume 1.0 

Q1.Which of the following are compiling without warning or error?
a) float f=1.3; 
b) char c="a";
c) byte b=257;
d) boolean b=null;
e) int i=10;

Q2.Which of the following are legal statements?
a) float f=1/3;
b) int i=1/3;
c) float f=1.01;
d) double d=999d;. 
Q3.Which of the following are Java keywords?
a) NULL.
b) new.
c) instanceOf.
d) wend.

Q4.Which of the following are valid statements?
a) System.out.println(5+4);
b) int i=2+'3';
c) String s="one"+'Two';
d) byte b=255; 
Q 5.Which of the following statements are true?
a) The garbage collection algorithm in Java is vendor implemented.
b) The size of primitives is platform dependent.
c) The default type for a numerical literal with decimal component is a float.
d) You can modify the value in an Instance of the Integer class with the setValue method.


Q6.Which of the following are true statements?
a) The creation of a named instance of the File class creates a matching file in the underlying operating system only when the close method is called.
b) The RandomAccessFile class allows you to move directly to any point a file.
c). I/O in Java can only be performed using the Listener classes.
d) The characteristics of an instance of the File class such as the directory separator, depend on the current underlying operating system.

Q 7.Which of the following statements are true?
a) The instanceof operator can be used to determine if a reference is an instance of a class, but not an interface.
b) The instanceof operator can be used to determine if a reference is an instance of a particular primitive wrapper class.
c) The instanceof operator will only determine if a reference is an instance of a class immediately above in the hierarchy but no further up the inheritance chain.
d) The instanceof operator can be used to determine if one reference is of the same class as another reference thus.

Q8.Which of the following statements are true?
a) An interface can only contain method and not variables.
b) Interfaces cannot have constructors.
c) A class may extend only one other class and implement only one interface.
d) Interfaces are the Java approach to addressing its lack of multiple inheritance, but require implementing classes to create the functionality of the Interfaces.

Q9.Which of the following are valid statements? 
a) public class MyCalc extends Math
b) Math.max(5);
c) Math.round(9.99,1);
d)Math.mod(4,10);

Q10.Which of the following are methods of the Runnable interface?
a) run
b) start
c) yield
d) stop 
Q11.Which of the following statements are true?
a) A byte can represent between -128 to 127.
b) A byte can represent between -127 to 128. 
c) A byte can represent between -256 to 256. 
d) A char can represent between -2x2 pow 16 2 x2 pow 16 - 1. 
Q12.What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
class Base{
public void Base(){
System.out.println("Base");
}
}
public class Inner extends Base{
public static void main(String argv[]){
Inner i=new Inner();
}
}
a) Compile time error Base is a keyword.
b) Compilation and no output at runtime.
c) Output of Base.
d) Runtime error Base has no valid constructor. 
Q13.You have a public class called myclass with the main method defined as follows
public static void main(String parm[]) { 

System.out.println(parm[0]);
} 
If you attempt to compile the class and run the program as follows
“java myclass hello”
What will happen?
a) Compile time error, main is not correctly defined.
b) Run time error, main is not correctly defined.
c) Compilation and output of java.
d) Compilation and output of hello.

Q14.Which of the following statements are true?
a) If a class has any abstract methods it must be declared abstract itself.
b) All methods in an abstract class must be declared as abstract.
c) When applied to a class, the final modifier means it cannot be sub-classed.
d) transient and volatile are Java modifiers. 
Q15.Which of the following are valid methods?
a) public static native void amethod(){}
b) public static void amethod(){}
c) private protected void amethod(){}
d) static native void amethod();

Q16.Which of the following statements are true?
a) Constructors cannot have a visibility modifier.
b) Constructors can be marked public and protected, but not private.
c) Constructors can only have a primitive return type.
d) Constructors are not inherited.

Q17.What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following class?
class Base{
Base(int i){
System.out.println("Base");
}
}
class Inner extends Base{
public static void main(String argv[]){
Inner s = new Inner();
}
void Inner (){
System.out.println("Inner");
}
}
a) Compilation and output of the string “Inner “at runtime.
b) Compile time error.
c) Compilation and no output at runtime.
d) Compilation and output of the string "Base".

Q18.Which of the following statements are true?
a) A static methods do not have access to the implicit variable called this.
b) A static method may be called without creating an instance of its class.
c) A static method may not be overridden to be non-static.
d) A static method may not be overloaded. 
Q19.Which of the following will compile without error?
a)char c='1';
System.out.println(c>>1);
b)Integer i=Integer("1");
System.out.println(i>>1);
c)int i=1;
System.out.println(i<<<1);
d)int i=1;
System.out.println(i<<1);

Q 20.Which of the following are Java keywords?
a) sizeof
b) main
c) transient
d) volatile 
Q21.Which of the following statements are true? 
a) The default constructor has a return type of void.
b) The default constructor takes a parameter of void.
c) The default constructor takes no parameters.
d) The default constructor is not created if the class has any constructors of its own. 

Q22.Which of the following statements are true?
a) All of the variables in an interface are implicitly static.
b) All of the variables in an interface are implicitly final.
c) All of the methods in an interface are implicitly abstract.
d) A method in an interface can access class level variables.

Q 23.Which of the following statements are true?
a) The String class is implemented as a char array, elements are addressed using the stringname[] convention.
b) The + operator is overloaded for concatenation for the String class.
c) Strings are a primitive type in Java and the StringBuffer is used as the matching wrapper type.
d) The size of a string can be retrieved using the length property.

Q 24.Which of the following statements are true?
a) A method in an interface must not have a body.
b) A class may extend one other class plus at most one interface.
c) A class may extends at most one other class plus implement many interfaces.
d) An class accesses an interface via the keyword uses. 
Q 25.Which of the following statements are true?
a) The following statement will produce a result of 1. 
System.out.println( -1 >>>2);
b) Performing an unsigned left shift (<<<) on a negative number will always produce a negative number result.
c) The following statement will produce a result of zero, 
System.out.println(1 >>1);
d) All the Java integral types are signed numbers
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